I have access to far more material than is readily available online. I have to have such access.

Your "legal" link has far more to do with Xtian "morality" than it does to any provable fact. Like the report by Finkelhore where he conducted a "study" of adult response to childhood sexual experiences using heavily biased language designed to elicit the desired response, but still failed to show what he was seeking, this is, that childhood sexual experience is universally harmful, so he then falls back on "morality" to justify his anti-sex stand.

One of the things I find both interesting and amusing about Xtian "morality" is that it really has little or no basis on the Bible. The Bible (Old and New Testaments) contains 67 admonitions to heterosexuals, 3 to homosexuals, and none to paedophiles!

The only mention of probable peadophilia in the Bible is the brief passage about the Centurion's Boy. Google it to read it in detail. Basically, the Centurion's favourite boy slave was dying of what appears to be polio from the symptoms described and he appealed to Jesus to cure the boy, which he did. Not only did Jesus not chastise the Centurion for his love for the boy, he praised him for his faith. If God found paedophilia so bad, why did He create it? Having created it, why did He not command his chosen race to avoid it?

For the non-Xtians, the strongest argument in favour of paedophilia is evolution/natural selection, which tends to eliminate unneeded or undesirable traits. Paedophilia has existed as long as mankind has existed. If it is so harmful, why has natural selection not eliminated it?